Free OBGYN Board Review Sample Questions
TrueLearn is a trusted resource for so many OB/GYN residents. We understand that it’s all about the content. That’s why we have high-yield ABOG and CREOG practice questions written and screened by high-performing physician authors that are updated on a regular basis to ensure our SmartBanks stay up-to-date with exam blueprint changes. See what we mean with the below free OB/GYN board review questions.
Your Free CREOG Sample Question from the 2026 New Edition
A physician is seeing a 37-year-old patient in the office for a complaint of abnormal uterine bleeding. The patient inquires about having an endometrial ablation performed, as her friend recently had one and was satisfied with the result. The patient, however, is concerned that she is not as healthy as her friend and might not be an ideal candidate for the procedure. She asks about the contraindications to the procedure. The physician informs the patient that there are both relative and absolute contraindications to having the procedure done. Which of the following does the physician cite as an example of a RELATIVE contraindication to endometrial ablation?
- A. Bleeding or clotting disorder
- B. Cervical cancer diagnosis
- C. History of endometrial ablation
- D. History of extensive myomectomy
- E. Plans for future pregnancy
The Answer and Explanation
Did you get it right? The correct answer is: C
Having a history of an endometrial ablation is a relative, and not an absolute, contraindication to endometrial ablation. As long as cancer has been ruled out and the patient has no other absolute contraindications to the procedure, the same or different type of endometrial ablation can be performed.
| Endometrial Ablation | |
| Absolute Contraindications | Relative Contraindications |
| Current pregnancyDesire for future fertilityActive pelvic infectionIUD in placeEndometrial hyperplasia or cancerCervical cancerPrevious full thickness myomectomyBleeding or clotting disorderUndiagnosed adnexal masses | Previous endometrial ablationThin myometrium due to prior surgeriesComplete cervical stenosisAnatomical variations in uterine size or shapeCavity length greater than 12 cm |
Incorrect Answer Explanations
Answer A: Having a bleeding or clotting disorder is an absolute contraindication to performing an endometrial ablation. If these patients are experiencing abnormal uterine bleeding, they should be seen by a hematologist or appropriate care provider to control their disorder, which in turn should help their uterine bleeding.
Answer B: Cervical or endometrial cancer is an absolute contraindication for endometrial ablation. Any patient who presents with abnormal uterine bleeding should have cervical and endometrial cancer ruled out before proceeding with endometrial ablation. By ablating the endometrium, you would make the staging harder or impossible to do.
Answer D: History of an extensive myomectomy is an absolute contraindication to endometrial ablation, as the myometrium would be too weakened; an ablation could lead to serious complications if perforation were to occur.
Answer E: Plans for a future pregnancy are an absolute contraindication to endometrial ablation, as pregnancies following an ablation can be dangerous for both the mother and the fetus.
Bottom Line
Absolute contraindications to endometrial ablation include bleeding or clotting disorders, current or planned pregnancies, any previous uterine surgery that would render the myometrium thin, the presence of cervical or endometrial cancers or precancers, IUD in place, and undiagnosed adnexal masses. Relative contraindications include previous endometrial ablation, complete cervical stenosis, unusual anatomical variation of the uterus, and uterine length greater than 12 cm.
For more information, see:
ACOG Practice Bulletin 181: Endometrial Ablation. 2019.
Pfenninger and Fowler’s Procedures for Primary Care, 3rd ed. Chapter 156: Endometrial Ablation.
Another Free OBGYN Practice Question for CREOG
A 23-year-old G2P1 at 35 5/7 weeks’ gestation undergoes a growth ultrasound which reveals a single fetus in cephalic presentation, deepest vertical pocket of 4 cm, and estimated fetal weight in the 11th percentile with abdominal circumference in the 5th percentile. Umbilical artery Dopplers show absent end diastolic flow. What is the MOST appropriate next step?
- A. Induce labor immediately
- B. Perform cesarean section immediately
- C. Schedule patient for twice weekly non-stress tests, repeat Doppler studies in one week, and schedule induction at 37 0/7 weeks
- D. Schedule patient for twice weekly non-stress tests, repeat Doppler studies weekly, and schedule induction at 38 0/7 weeks
- E. Schedule patient for twice weekly non-stress tests, repeat Doppler studies weekly, and schedule induction at 39 0/7 weeks
The Answer and Explanation
Did you get it right? The correct answer is: A
Fetal growth restriction (FGR) is defined as a fetus with an estimated fetal weight (EFW) or abdominal circumference (AC) less than the 10th percentile for gestational age. FGR occurs in up to 10% of pregnancies.
A fetus with an EFW less than the 10th percentile has a 1.5% risk of fetal death (twice the risk as that of a normally grown infant).
A fetus with an EFW less than the 5th percentile has a 2.5% risk of fetal death.
Severe growth restriction is defined as EFW less than the 3rd percentile (AC is notably absent from severe FGR definition). Knowing when to deliver severe fetal growth restriction and abnormal Doppler studies is essential. The timing of delivery is dependent on degree of Doppler abnormalities and degree of growth restriction.
| Dopplers | Delivery Timing |
| Normal Dopplers, FGR | Delivery 38–39 weeks |
| Normal Dopplers, severe FGR | Delivery at 37 weeks |
| Decreased end diastolic flow | Delivery at 37 weeks |
| Absent end diastolic flow | Delivery at 33–34 weeks |
| Reversed end diastolic flow | Delivery at 30–32 weeks |
*Prior to 30 weeks, REDF is delivered for recurrent late decelerations
**Inpatient recommended with steroids for REDF
The estimated fetal weight for this infant is greater than the 10th percentile but the abdominal circumference is less than the 10th percentile, which makes this fetus meet criteria for growth restriction. Doppler studies are appropriately done and reveal absent end diastolic flow. As noted in the table above, delivery is recommended at 33 0/7 – 34 0/7 weeks’ gestation or at diagnosis if diagnosed later in fetuses affected by growth restriction and absent end diastolic flow of umbilical artery Doppler studies.
Incorrect Answer Explanations
Answer B: The question stem provides no indication that a cesarean section is necessary at this time. From the information given, this patient is an appropriate candidate for an induction with cesarean reserved for usual obstetric indications.
Answer C: This antepartum surveillance and delivery timing (37 weeks) would be appropriate for fetus with isolated growth restriction measuring less than the 3rd percentile.
Answer D: This antepartum surveillance and delivery timing (between 38 and 39 0/7 weeks’ gestation) would be appropriate for isolated fetal growth restriction with an estimated fetal weight between the 3rd and 10th percentile. This is not appropriate when there are abnormal Doppler studies.
Answer E: This antepartum surveillance and delivery timing (between 38 and 39 0/7 weeks’ gestation) would be appropriate for isolated fetal growth restriction with an estimated fetal weight between the 3rd and 10th percentile. This is not appropriate when there are abnormal Doppler studies.
Bottom Line
Delivery is recommended at 33 0/7 – 34 0/7 weeks’ gestation or at diagnosis if diagnosed later in cases of fetal growth restriction with absent end diastolic flow on umbilical artery Doppler studies. Fetal growth restriction is defined as estimated fetal weight or abdominal circumference less than the 10th percentile.
For more information, see:
ACOG Practice Bulletin 227: Fetal Growth Restriction. 2021.
ACOG Committee Opinion 831: Medically Indicated Late-Preterm and Early-Term Deliveries. 2024.
The Next Free OBGYN Practice Question for ABOG
A 38-year-old woman presents for LEEP due to a finding of CIN2 on a recent colposcopy. She does not require any oxygen. According to the Council on Surgical and Perioperative Safety (CSPS), what is her fire risk level?
- A. 1
- B. 2
- C. 3
- D. 4
- E. 5
The Answer and Explanation
Did you get it right? The correct answer is: A
In order for any fire to start there are three elements that must be present: fuel, oxygen, and heat. The Council on Surgical and Perioperative Safety (CSPS) created guidelines to help raise awareness about fire risks. Understanding the fire risk of your procedure prior to performing it is an essential part of surgical preparation.
| Causes of Increased Fire Risk | Points Value |
| Surgical site above the xiphoid | 1 |
| Open oxygen source (nasal cannula) | 1 |
| Available ignition source (electrocautery) | 1 |
| Fire Risk Score | Risk Stratification | CSPS Guidelines |
| 1 | Low risk | Standard precautions |
| 2 | Low risk with potentialto convert to high risk | – Protect heat sources (holster the electrocautery)- Alcohol-based prep should be allowed to dry for 3 minutes |
| 3 | High risk | Same as above AND- Use wet sponges- Fire suppression should be available- Drape in order to avoid concentration of oxygen |
Incorrect Answer Explanations
Answer B: Level 2 is low risk with potential to convert to high risk procedure. If the patient used oxygen via mask or nasal cannula then it would be a 2.
Answer C: Level 3 is high risk for fire, which would occur when there is an available ignition source.
Answer D: Levels 4 and 5 do not exist.
Answer E: Levels 4 and 5 do not exist.
Bottom Line
The Council on Surgical and Perioperative Safety (CSPS) created guidelines to help raise awareness about fire risks. 1 is low risk, 2 is low risk with potential to convert to high risk, and 3 is high risk for fire.
For more information, see:
Williams Gynecology, 4th ed. Chapter 40: Intraoperative Considerations.OR Manager, Inc. Scoring fire risk for surgical patients. OR Manager. 2006;22(1):1-3.
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